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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

12.06.2025 01:22

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

How do the youth in Taiwan perceive their national identity in relation to China?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Can you provide a list of cities named after animals and the animals they were named after?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Atheists claim that Earth is 10 billion years old, yet there are no fossils that old. What do you have to say for yourselves for lying?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.